Judiciary MCQ Quiz - Objective Question with Answer for Judiciary - Download Free PDF

The correct answer is Allowed claims without policy details in certain cases.

Key Points

• The Jharkhand High Court took a significant step by allowing third-party insurance claims to be processed even in cases where policy details are unavailable.
• This decision was aimed at ensuring justice and providing relief to accident victims who might otherwise face delays due to incomplete or missing insurance details.
• The court emphasized that procedural lapses or lack of documentation should not hinder compensation for genuine claimants.
• This move aligns with the judiciary's focus on safeguarding the rights of accident victims and promoting accountability among insurers.
• The court’s decision has set a precedent for similar cases, highlighting the importance of victim-first approaches in insurance claims.

Additional Information

• Third-Party Insurance:
  • Third-party insurance provides coverage for damages or injuries caused to a third party by the insured vehicle.
  • It is mandatory under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, in India for all vehicles plying on public roads.
• Motor Vehicles Act, 1988:
  • This Act governs road transport laws in India, including provisions related to vehicle registration, licensing, and insurance.
  • Section 147 of the Act mandates third-party insurance to ensure compensation for accident victims.
• Challenges in Third-Party Claims:
  • Claimants often face issues like incomplete documentation, delays in processing, and lack of awareness about the claim process.
  • Judicial interventions aim to address these challenges and improve access to compensation.
• Role of Judiciary in Insurance Disputes:
  • Courts play a pivotal role in interpreting insurance laws and protecting the rights of accident victims.
  • Judicial activism in such cases ensures that technicalities do not hinder justice delivery.

The correct answer is The withdrawal of financial powers was upheld due to corruption charges.

In News

• The Madhya Pradesh High Court upheld the decision to withdraw the financial powers of the Sarpanch of a Gram Panchayat after corruption charges were filed.

Key Points

• The CEO, District Panchayat, withdrew the financial powers of the Sarpanch following a Lokayukta case against him for demanding a bribe.
• The Sarpanch contested the order, arguing that the CEO had no authority to withdraw the financial powers based solely on a criminal case registration.
• The High Court referred to the Madhya Pradesh Panchayat (Powers & Works of CEO) Rules, 1985, and ruled that the CEO has supervisory powers to ensure proper fund usage, thus allowing the withdrawal of financial powers.
• The ruling emphasizes the CEO's role in maintaining checks against corruption, ensuring that public funds are not misused even before a final judgment in criminal cases.
• The decision reflects a balance between legal processes and administrative action, allowing preventive measures in governance.

The correct answer is The Kalelkar Commission set up in 1953..

In News

• The Supreme Court is currently hearing a case regarding providing 27% reservation to Other Backward Classes (OBC) in Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Kalelkar Commission was set up in 1953, which was the first instance of recognizing backward classes beyond Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST) at the national level.
• The Mandal Commission report in 1980 identified 52% of the population as OBCs and recommended increasing the reservation from 22.5% to 49.5%, thus including OBCs in the reservation system.
• The Supreme Court’s intervention in 2008 excluded the "creamy layer" among OBCs from the reservation policy to ensure the benefits reach the most disadvantaged groups.
• The 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 2018 provided constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), empowering it to protect the interests of backward classes, including OBCs.

The incorrect statement is Option 2: The initiative was launched as a pilot project in Mumbai by the Ministry of Law and Justice.

• Explanation: The e-Zero FIR initiative was launched as a pilot project in Delhi, not Mumbai, by the Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre (I4C) under the Ministry of Home Affairs.

In News

• Union Home Minister Amit Shah announced the e-Zero FIR initiative on May 2025, aiming to expedite registration and investigation of cyber financial crimes in India.

Key Points

• Launched by the Ministry of Home Affairs’ Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre (I4C) as a pilot project in Delhi, with plans for nationwide rollout.
• Complaints of cyber financial crimes filed via the National Cybercrime Reporting Portal (NCRP) or helpline 1930 are automatically converted into FIRs if the monetary loss exceeds ₹10 lakh.
• The e-Zero FIR system enables FIR registration irrespective of territorial jurisdiction, simplifying crime reporting across state boundaries.
• Designed to speed up investigations and recovery of lost funds, allowing law enforcement to act swiftly against cybercriminals.
• Integrates with the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, Delhi Police’s e-FIR system, and the national Crime and Criminal Tracking Network & Systems (CCTNS).
• Victim-friendly approach eliminates concerns over jurisdiction; once eligible, FIRs are generated and routed to the appropriate police stations automatically.
• The pilot covers high-value cases (>₹10 lakh) and plans to expand to all cyber financial fraud cases with nationwide implementation soon.

The incorrect statement is Option 2: The initiative was launched as a pilot project in Mumbai by the Ministry of Law and Justice.

• Explanation: The e-Zero FIR initiative was launched as a pilot project in Delhi, not Mumbai, by the Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre (I4C) under the Ministry of Home Affairs.

In News

• Union Home Minister Amit Shah announced the e-Zero FIR initiative on May 2025, aiming to expedite registration and investigation of cyber financial crimes in India.

Key Points

• Launched by the Ministry of Home Affairs’ Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre (I4C) as a pilot project in Delhi, with plans for nationwide rollout.
• Complaints of cyber financial crimes filed via the National Cybercrime Reporting Portal (NCRP) or helpline 1930 are automatically converted into FIRs if the monetary loss exceeds ₹10 lakh.
• The e-Zero FIR system enables FIR registration irrespective of territorial jurisdiction, simplifying crime reporting across state boundaries.
• Designed to speed up investigations and recovery of lost funds, allowing law enforcement to act swiftly against cybercriminals.
• Integrates with the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, Delhi Police’s e-FIR system, and the national Crime and Criminal Tracking Network & Systems (CCTNS).
• Victim-friendly approach eliminates concerns over jurisdiction; once eligible, FIRs are generated and routed to the appropriate police stations automatically.
• The pilot covers high-value cases (>₹10 lakh) and plans to expand to all cyber financial fraud cases with nationwide implementation soon.

The correct answer is Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• In December 2021, the Supreme Court of India suspended the OBC (Other Backward Classes) quota in local body elections.
• The states affected were Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh.
• This ruling translates to the fact that state election commissions can no longer reserve seats for OBCs in all future local body elections across India.
• The condition to reinstate quotas is to comply with the Supreme Court's triple-test guidelines which include establishing the backwardness of class, inadequacy of representation and overall efficiency.
• This decision has caused significant debate regarding reservation policies in local governance and their overall impact on social justice and representation.

The correct answer is State of Kerala v. Leesamma Joseph.Key Points

• The Supreme Court of India in its judgment on 28 June 2021 in the case of "State of Kerala vs Leesamma Joseph" affirmed that persons with disabilities have a right to reservation in promotion under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India, 1950.
• While examining the constitutionality of Section 33 of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, the Court noted that 'equality of opportunity' in matters of public employment includes provision of certain reservations in favour of persons with disabilities.
• Furthermore, it held that Article 16(4) of the Constitution, empowering the State to make provisions for reservation in matters of promotion in favour of any backward class of citizens, also includes persons with disabilities within its scope, regardless of the nature of their establishments, whether they belong to the public sector or the private sector.

The case of "Indra Sawhney v. Union of India" is popularly known as the "Mandal Commission case." It is a landmark judgment by the Supreme Court of India that dealt with the implementation of reservations for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in public employment. The Mandal Commission, officially known as the Second Backward Classes Commission, had recommended a reservation of 27% for OBCs in government jobs. The case involved a constitutional challenge to the implementation of these reservations.

Additional Information

• Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 (RPDA):
  • This is the principal legislation that protects the rights of individuals with disabilities in India.
  • It replaces and strengthens the Persons with Disabilities Act, 1995.
  • The RPDA complies with the United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities, to which India is a signatory.
  • The Act expands the list of recognized disabilities from 7 to 21, and mandates the central and state governments to take measures to ensure that persons with disabilities fully enjoy all human rights and fundamental freedoms.
• Section 33 of the RPDA states that the appropriate Governments shall appoint in every Government establishment, not less than four percent of the total number of vacancies in the cadre strength in each group of posts meant to be filled with persons with benchmark disabilities of which, one percent each shall be reserved for persons with benchmark disabilities under clauses (a), (b) and (c) and one percent for persons with benchmark disabilities under clauses (d) and (e), namely:—
  • a. blindness and low vision;
  • b. deaf and hard of hearing;
  • c. locomotor disability including cerebral palsy, leprosy cured, dwarfism, acid attack victims and muscular dystrophy;
  • d. autism, intellectual disability, specific learning disability and mental illness;
  • e. multiple disabilities from amongst persons under clauses (a) to (d) including deaf-blindness.
• Article 16 of the Constitution of India generally provides for equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. However, clause 16(4) empowers the State to make provisions for reservation in appointments or posts in favor of any backward class of citizens if it believes they are not adequately represented in the services under the State.
• In the case "State of Kerala v. Leesamma Joseph" passed on 28 June 2021, the Supreme Court of India held that persons with disabilities have a right to reservation in promotions under Article 16(4) of the Constitution. This was a significant judgment reinforcing the principle of equal opportunities for persons with disabilities in public employment.

The correct answer is persons with disabilities.  

Key Points

•  State of Kerala Vs Leesamma Joseph:-
  • The Supreme Court of India in its judgment on 28 June 2021 in the case of "State of Kerala vs Leesamma Joseph" affirmed that persons with disabilities have a right to reservation in promotion under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India, 1950.
  • While examining the constitutionality of Section 33 of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, the Court noted that 'equality of opportunity' in matters of public employment includes provision of certain reservations in favour of persons with disabilities.
  • Furthermore, it held that Article 16(4) of the Constitution, empowering the State to make provisions for reservation in matters of promotion in favour of any backward class of citizens, also includes persons with disabilities within its scope, regardless of the nature of their establishments, whether they belong to the public sector or the private sector.

Additional Information

• Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 (RPDA):
  • This is the principal legislation that protects the rights of individuals with disabilities in India.
  • It replaces and strengthens the Persons with Disabilities Act, 1995.
  • The RPDA complies with the United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities, to which India is a signatory.
  • The Act expands the list of recognized disabilities from 7 to 21, and mandates the central and state governments to take measures to ensure that persons with disabilities fully enjoy all human rights and fundamental freedoms.

The correct answer is 24 weeks.Key Points

• In September 2022, the Supreme Court allowed all women, irrespective of their marital status, to safely and legally abort their child till 24 weeks of pregnancy under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act.
• The Bill allows for the termination of pregnancy after 24 weeks based on the opinion of the Medical Board in the case of substantial foetal abnormalities. 
• The Bill does not provide a time frame within which the Board must make its decision.  .
• It proposes the requirement of the opinion of two registered medical practitioners for termination of pregnancy of 20-24 weeks of gestation and it aims to enhance the gestation limit for ‘special categories’ of women which includes survivors of rape, victims of incest, and other vulnerable women like differently-abled women and minors.

Additional Information 

• Medical termination of pregnancy act given for the termination of certain pregnancies by registered medical practitioners.
• The MTP act was passed in 1971 in India.
• MTP is a legalized method to terminate the unwanted or unintentional pregnancy before its full term. There are certain conditions involved under abortion that is:-
  • When the continuation of the pregnancy will harm the mother physically or mentally,
  • When the newborn is at risk or can suffer from severe mental or physical problems or can be handicapped,
  • For a minor girl, guardians or parents should give written consent for MTP.
  • Unwanted pregnancies due to unsafe sex or rapes or failure of the contraceptive can be terminated.
  • Termination of the pregnancy can be conducted in a government hospital or a place approved for this act by the government.  

The correct answer is Entry of women to Sabarimala.

Key Points

• Entry of women to Sabarimala:-
  • The Supreme Court on 28 September 2018 allowed entry of women of all ages into the Ayyappa temple at Sabarimala in Kerala.
  • The SC said banning entry of women to Kerala's Sabarimala temple is gender discrimination and the practice violates rights of Hindu women.
  • Justice Indu Malhotra penned a dissenting opinion Entry of women to Sabarimala. 
  • The court gave its verdict on a clutch of pleas challenging the ban on entry of women at Sabarimala in Kerala.

Additional Information

•  Doctrine of Basic Structure:-
  • It is a judicial principle developed by the Supreme Court of India in 1973.
  • This principle emerged in the Keshavananda Bharati judgment.
  • The Parliament of India is vested with the power of amending the Constitution (Article 368). But, the doctrine of basic structure restricts the powers of the Parliament.
  • According to this, the Supreme Court has the power to declare any law void if it is found to be unconstitutional.
  • Any amendment that tries to change the basic structure of the constitution is considered unconstitutional, though the term ';basic structure' is not mentioned in the constitution and has evolved over time.
  • This principle thus helps to protect and preserve the spirit of the constitution document.
• Preamble' of the Indian Constitution -
  • The Preamble to a Constitution embodies the fundamental values and the philosophy, on which the Constitution is based, and the aims and objectives, which the founding fathers of the Constitution enjoined the polity to strive to achieve.
  • The importance and utility of the Preamble have been pointed out in several decisions of the Supreme Court of India.

Correct Answer Right to be forgotten

Key Points

• The Supreme Court's decision to remove the personal details of individuals involved in matrimonial litigation is a recognition of the right to privacy.
• This right is a fundamental right that is protected under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
• The court's decision is in line with the landmark judgment in the Puttaswamy case (2017).
• Supreme Court declared that the right to privacy is a fundamental right that is essential to the dignity and autonomy of individuals.
• The court recognized that the right to privacy includes the right to control the dissemination of personal information. 
• This decision is a step towards protecting that right for individuals involved in matrimonial disputes.
• Article 21 is one of the prime Articles comprising Part III of the Constitution of India dealing with fundamental rights.
• Article 21 is the protection of life and personal liberty.
  • No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
  • It guarantees life and personal liberty to all persons irrespective of caste or gender.
  • It guarantees the right of persons to live with human dignity.
  • All the aspects of life go to make a person's life meaningful, complete, and worth living.

Additional Information:

• The right to be forgotten is a relatively new concept that has emerged in the digital age.
• It refers to the right of an individual to request the removal of personal information from the internet.
• .In India, the Supreme Court has recognized the right to privacy as a fundamental right under the Constitution.
• There have been calls for the recognition of the right to be forgotten in Indian law.

• Fundamental rights are the rights that are essential for the survival of people with dignity. 
• The Indian Constitution accommodates fundamental rights that are Justiciable subject to reasonable restrictions. 

There are six fundamental rights namely

1. Right to Equality (Article 14-18) 
2. Right to freedom (Article 19-22) 
3. Right against exploitation (Article 23 and 24) 
4. Right to freedom of religion (Article 25-28) 
5. Cultural and educational rights (Article 29 and 30) 
6. Rights to constitutional remedies (Article 32)

The correct answer is Calcutta.

Key Points

• West Bengal CM Mamata Banerjee launched the ‘Duare Ration’ (ration at doorstep) scheme on 16 November 2021.
• It will benefit around 10 crore people in the state.
• She also inaugurated a WhatsApp chatbot for the Food and Supplies Department of the state government and a mobile application, ‘Khadya Sathi: Amar Ration Mobile App’ to help people apply for ration cards
• ​CM Banerjee said that the government has decided to increase the commission for ration dealers from Rs 75 to Rs 150 per quintal of food grain.
• The scheme was announced before the West Bengal Assembly Elections held in March-April 2021.
• She said that the government would provide around 21,000 ration dealers with financial assistance of Rs 1 lakh each to purchase vehicles for delivering ration to people.
• Vehicles carrying foodgrain will be delivering rations to the doorsteps of the beneficiaries once the scheme is implemented.
• The government started the project on a pilot basis with as many as 3,000 ration dealers in the state from September 2021.
• The Calcutta High Court on September 2022 declared the 'Duare Ration Scheme' (ration at the doorstep) of the West Bengal government ultra vires to the National Food Security Act, 2013 and is legally void.

Important Points

• The National Food Security Act (NFSA 2013) is also known as the Right to Food Act.
• It provides food and nutritional security life at affordable prices i.e subsidized food grains to approximately two-thirds of India's 1.2 billion people.
• The act was enacted by Manmohan Singh's Indian National Congress-led UPA (United Progressive Alliance) Government.
• The act was introduced in the Parliament on 22nd December 2011, promulgated a presidential ordinance on 5th July 2013, signed on 10th September 2013, and enacted into law on 12th September 2013.
• The act includes Midday Meal Scheme, Public Distribution System (PDS), Integrated Child Development Services Scheme, and also recognizes maternity entitlements.
• The Midday Meal Scheme and the Integrated Child Development Services Scheme are for the benefit of every eligible individual whereas the PDS will reach about two-thirds of the population i.e 50% in urban areas and 75% in rural areas.

The correct answer is 27 percent.

Key Points

• The report produced by Jayantkumar Banthia Commission,  recommended that OBCs should be given up to 27 percent reservation in local bodies.
•  This report is accepted by court, and it confirmed that OBCs will get 27 percent political reservation in local self-government elections in the state.
•  In case of direct recruitment to Group C and D posts which normally attract candidates from a locality or a region, the percentage of reservation forSCs /STs is generally fixed in proportion to the population of SCs and STs.​

Additional Information

• ​ This report made a way for candidates who belong to Other Backward Classes in Local Bodies’ Elections in Maharashtra.
• Commission has recommended to provide 27& reservation in local bodies.
• This recommendation has been accepted by the supreme court.
• As per report, reservation should be provided to OBCs in proportion to their population in each local body.
• However, this reservation should not affect the statutory reservation for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes. It is subject to reservation limit of 50%.

The correct answer is Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• In December 2021, the Supreme Court of India suspended the OBC (Other Backward Classes) quota in local body elections.
• The states affected were Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh.
• This ruling translates to the fact that state election commissions can no longer reserve seats for OBCs in all future local body elections across India.
• The condition to reinstate quotas is to comply with the Supreme Court's triple-test guidelines which include establishing the backwardness of class, inadequacy of representation and overall efficiency.
• This decision has caused significant debate regarding reservation policies in local governance and their overall impact on social justice and representation.

The correct answer is State of Kerala v. Leesamma Joseph.Key Points

• The Supreme Court of India in its judgment on 28 June 2021 in the case of "State of Kerala vs Leesamma Joseph" affirmed that persons with disabilities have a right to reservation in promotion under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India, 1950.
• While examining the constitutionality of Section 33 of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, the Court noted that 'equality of opportunity' in matters of public employment includes provision of certain reservations in favour of persons with disabilities.
• Furthermore, it held that Article 16(4) of the Constitution, empowering the State to make provisions for reservation in matters of promotion in favour of any backward class of citizens, also includes persons with disabilities within its scope, regardless of the nature of their establishments, whether they belong to the public sector or the private sector.

The case of "Indra Sawhney v. Union of India" is popularly known as the "Mandal Commission case." It is a landmark judgment by the Supreme Court of India that dealt with the implementation of reservations for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in public employment. The Mandal Commission, officially known as the Second Backward Classes Commission, had recommended a reservation of 27% for OBCs in government jobs. The case involved a constitutional challenge to the implementation of these reservations.

Additional Information

• Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 (RPDA):
  • This is the principal legislation that protects the rights of individuals with disabilities in India.
  • It replaces and strengthens the Persons with Disabilities Act, 1995.
  • The RPDA complies with the United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities, to which India is a signatory.
  • The Act expands the list of recognized disabilities from 7 to 21, and mandates the central and state governments to take measures to ensure that persons with disabilities fully enjoy all human rights and fundamental freedoms.
• Section 33 of the RPDA states that the appropriate Governments shall appoint in every Government establishment, not less than four percent of the total number of vacancies in the cadre strength in each group of posts meant to be filled with persons with benchmark disabilities of which, one percent each shall be reserved for persons with benchmark disabilities under clauses (a), (b) and (c) and one percent for persons with benchmark disabilities under clauses (d) and (e), namely:—
  • a. blindness and low vision;
  • b. deaf and hard of hearing;
  • c. locomotor disability including cerebral palsy, leprosy cured, dwarfism, acid attack victims and muscular dystrophy;
  • d. autism, intellectual disability, specific learning disability and mental illness;
  • e. multiple disabilities from amongst persons under clauses (a) to (d) including deaf-blindness.
• Article 16 of the Constitution of India generally provides for equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. However, clause 16(4) empowers the State to make provisions for reservation in appointments or posts in favor of any backward class of citizens if it believes they are not adequately represented in the services under the State.
• In the case "State of Kerala v. Leesamma Joseph" passed on 28 June 2021, the Supreme Court of India held that persons with disabilities have a right to reservation in promotions under Article 16(4) of the Constitution. This was a significant judgment reinforcing the principle of equal opportunities for persons with disabilities in public employment.